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Technical question
Posted: Sat Aug 02, 2008 3:34 am
by Jimmer
Does anybody know what happens when a stack of corps from an enemy of one power enters an area where two powers are represented, and only one of them is at war with the first power?
e.g. France attacks into Magdeburg. There is a combined Austrian and Prussian stack there, but only the Prussians are at war with the French.
Answer twice:
Once for when the second force in the place is a loaned corps being used by the other. In the example above, either Prussia has a single Austrian corps on loan, or the Austrians have a single corps on loan from the Prussians.
The other answer should be when the two powers just happen to be in the same space.
Thanks.
RE: Technical question
Posted: Sat Aug 02, 2008 1:00 pm
by Marshall Ellis
Jimmer:
1. Combat could still happen BUT France would only attack the Prussians (The Austrians would not show up in the combat).
2. The same would be true for the loaned corps. In order for a loaned corps to be able to fight then both the original owner of the corps AND the current owner of the corps would have to be at war with France.
That answer your questions?
RE: Technical question
Posted: Sat Aug 02, 2008 1:07 pm
by gwheelock
Almost. Now what happens if France is at war with the MP that loaned the corp (eg. Britain)
but not at war with the controlling MP (eg Austria is in enforced peace). Would the British corp
fight alone? And who would run it the original owner Britian or the CONTROLLING MP Austria
(who is not at war with France)?
RE: Technical question
Posted: Sun Aug 03, 2008 3:44 am
by Jimmer
I think that was answer number 1 in my list, Gwheelock. It has to fight.
What this really means is that when you loan out a corps, you have to be VERY careful about it. Only under the strictest of (unenforceable) conditions should this happen.
I guess the same thing could have happened under combined movement rules (the old way), but then you would be paying for your own supply, so you could just leave when you wanted to. But, if your ally gets deep in the weeds and another enemy shows up to clobber your corps solo, there's nothing you can do about it. You can't run, because then you would die foraging. You can't fight because there's no way one corps can beat an army.
RE: Technical question
Posted: Sun Aug 03, 2008 11:24 am
by Thresh
You can't fight because there's no way one corps can beat an army.
Depends on several factors, and is definately not written in stone.
Todd
RE: Technical question
Posted: Sun Aug 03, 2008 12:56 pm
by Soapy Frog
Under the original rules, the power not at war would be required to declare war or displace out of the province, IIRC. I suppose this is not implemented?
RE: Technical question
Posted: Sun Aug 03, 2008 2:24 pm
by Marshall Ellis
ORIGINAL: gwheelock
Almost. Now what happens if France is at war with the MP that loaned the corp (eg. Britain)
but not at war with the controlling MP (eg Austria is in enforced peace). Would the British corp
fight alone? And who would run it the original owner Britian or the CONTROLLING MP Austria
(who is not at war with France)?
They have to be at war with BOTH MPs
RE: Technical question
Posted: Sun Aug 03, 2008 2:26 pm
by Marshall Ellis
ORIGINAL: Soapy Frog
Under the original rules, the power not at war would be required to declare war or displace out of the province, IIRC. I suppose this is not implemented?
That is correct. We had to implement this way since this could create diplomatic changes (DOWs) in a land combat phase and that would have been a nightmare in PBEM!
RE: Technical question
Posted: Sun Aug 03, 2008 2:37 pm
by eske
If there is corps in an area, where there is a battle, and that corps can't participate - isn't it required to retreat from that area ? (Towards closest supply source of controlling player?)
/eske
RE: Technical question
Posted: Sun Aug 03, 2008 9:56 pm
by gwheelock
ORIGINAL: Thresh
You can't fight because there's no way one corps can beat an army.
Depends on several factors, and is definately not written in stone.
Todd
Actually France's #1 corp very well COULD fight (and beat) a small army.
RE: Technical question
Posted: Sun Aug 03, 2008 10:02 pm
by gwheelock
ORIGINAL: Marshall Ellis
ORIGINAL: gwheelock
Almost. Now what happens if France is at war with the MP that loaned the corp (eg. Britain)
but not at war with the controlling MP (eg Austria is in enforced peace). Would the British corp
fight alone? And who would run it the original owner Britian or the CONTROLLING MP Austria
(who is not at war with France)?
They have to be at war with BOTH MPs
So what happens when I move France's army into the spot occupied by an
Austrian army (at enforced peace) with a loaned British (at war) corp? Nothing?
What happens if they are still co-located and the corp becomes "un-loaned" the next
turn? You end up with 2 at-war nations in the same area.
RE: Technical question
Posted: Sun Aug 03, 2008 10:58 pm
by Thresh
Well, Davout and his 3rd Corps did beat an entire Army...
[;)]
Todd
ORIGINAL: gwheelock
ORIGINAL: Thresh
You can't fight because there's no way one corps can beat an army.
Depends on several factors, and is definately not written in stone.
Todd
Actually France's #1 corp very well COULD fight (and beat) a small army.