warspite1ORIGINAL: Orm
I am not sure that I understand this. I would appreciate it if someone could explain to me why this is so unique. Preferably in a calm and nice manner.My point was Europeans did not enter WWII, or any war in the past 300 years I can think of (tell me if I'm wrong), in the same or similar way the US entered WWII.
I hope I didn't offend by asking this.
More to the point is why it is even relevant to the discussion?
There are - judging by this unrepresentative sample - as many Americans that do/do not believe that the dropping of the bomb was necessary/justified/sensible as there are Europeans.
The Pacific War was, to all intents and purposes, the US vs Japan. Sure there were notable contributions from others - particularly the Commonwealth countries in Burma/PNG etc or the Dutch in NEI (and I do not in anyway belittle those that fought and died) - but it was the US that got that theatre won.
Equally, the Commonwealth forces earmarked for the invasion of the Home Islands was negligible in comparison to the US.
So in a discussion about America's choices and what she would do re a decision to end, what was essentially America's war, constant references to Churchill and "Europeans" is pointless. America, quite rightly, would have done (and did) what her President considered was best for her.
Suggesting any Europeans have never been subject to war without an official declaration is absurd - but equally not relevant.