I see merit to the argument Randomizer.
In Scotland, in the 18th century alone, there was a rebellion in 1719, a French invasion planned in 1744 with the help of Jacobites (individuals loyal to the Stewart dynasty), and the major rebellion of 1745 which culminated in the battle of Culloden that Randomizer mentioned. Indeed, if nothing else is considered to be conquered, the "Highlands" region should be, as this was not even effectively assimilated into rule under the Scottish crown during the 18th century and was, indeed the center of many of these "troubles" (lol...I am a closet Jacobite myself

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Unlike other rebellions throughout Europe perhaps, the Scottish efforts were born of a sense of naitonal identity--not just poor living conditions leading to overt frustration and an attempt to overturn the status quo.
You will always find a large portion of Scots who would be willing to take independence if offered to them. However, one reason that the case of Scotland is so different than the case of Brittany or Champagne, is the fact that, in theory, it WAS a unique political entity. Scotland is not listed along side the provences of Kent, Sussex, etc. No. Scotland stands alongside England in the Union. Which is why the flags were integrated (the Scottish blue field and white cross with the English white field and red cross, giving us the "Union Jack").
I don't know if you would find these kinds of statements to be true about Champagne, or Kent, or Pomerania in the time frame of CoG:EE.
What would the opinion be of a Welsh historian? I don't know.
Randomizer, I do agree that England had in effect gained control of Wales for some time, but I don't know how effectively it was assimilated. So, if we could assign degrees of "independence" I would agree with Randomizer, that Wales would be less deserving of this status than Scotland.