ORIGINAL: SqzMyLemon
ORIGINAL: Grit
Japan did have another option besides going to war. Become a peaceful nation and stop it's aggression in Asia. Did they really expect the rest of the world to look away while they pillaged whatever they wanted? The Japanese leadersip had choices and they consistently made the wrong choices.
Agreed, they could have. Japan instead tried to colonize like every world power had before them at the expense of China. They just came too late to the table. It was ok to take terittory in China, but start infringing on what the great powers had accumulated and wait a minute here. Don't forget too that at that time, there was extreme racism towards the asiatic, and that factored into the stance of the western powers towards Japan as well. There was a sense of just who do you think you are. The Washington Naval Treaty in 1922 is a good example, Japan was not given naval parity to what were then considered her allies, to the Japanese quite an insult.
I agree, FDR was a brillant statesman and Churchill had his faults, but they were the right men on hand for troubling times. Don't get me wrong here, Japan was an aggressor, but if you peel away the layers you'll see they just tried to do what many nations had done before them, they just lost. [:D]
Scattershooting:
Japan wasn't too late to the table in China. They took Tsingtao from Germany during WWI and later obtained several mandates for doing almost nothing during the war. Japan just wasn't satisfied with her 'share'. Other countries sought land concessions and trading privileges or monopolies, Japan sought control of the entire country either through internal means (via the 21 Demands, issuing them while most nations were busy fighting didn't help their case either, being predatory at best) or outright conquest (Mongolia, coastal areas). Different magnitude in goals. Also, if you act unilateraly in a region that affects several countries interests you shouldn't be surprised when they react.
Why would Japan be given naval parity during the Washington Naval Conference when her navy wasn't even up to the 7:10 that she negotiated? Japan wasn't an equal compared to the UK and USA in ship numbers or production capacity, it wasn't realistic to expect that she woud be treated as such. France and Italy had no issue with this, why did Japan?
It wasn't that Japan tried to do what other nations did and lost, it was that they were completely unrealistic about their expectations and capabilities. Japan: 1) had no right to control of China, 2) should not have expected other countries to be complicit by continuing to trade with them, 3) should not have been shocked when a country reacted either economically or militarily and 4) shouldn't have attempted, in effect, to solve the China incident by declaring war on the UK/USA/Dutch.
The idea that Japan declaring war prior to PH/Philipines attack would have made a difference in US reaction has always been a nonstarter with me. Whatever was delivered late was not a declaration of war nor would it have mattered had a declaration been delivered on time. Maybe there would have been more than one no vote to FDR's request for war but probably not. It would have been obvious to even congressman that KB was on its way while negotions were continuing.
That was considered bad form then.
As to the original thread.
1+2) No, for reasons previously expressed.
3) No, partially addressed above.