ORIGINAL: alfonso
Why do the Germans have a high proficiency (NationalMorale=75) in June 1941? In theory, because they were battle-hardened veterans. Back in 1938 the German Army performed rather poorly during Otto, the military walk into Austria, and in November 1939, after the Polish campaign, von Brauchitsch wrote a memorandum to Hitler explaining the shortcomings in the performance of the German Army.We can deduce that their improvement was indeed due mostly to their battle experience, and not training alone. After Poland there were campaigns in Norway, Denmark, Low Countries, France , Yugoslavia. None of those campaigns were really long, or incredibly difficult, but supposedly the Germans acquired in the process the summit of military perfection.
In fact after the Polish campaign the German High Command had concluded the 1914 German infantry was superior to their 1939 counterparts.
Let's never forget that the armored forces (a really small fraction of the land forces) did most of the job. The infantry had not really been tested. And this was true in 1940 and in fact in 1941 in the USSR.
The German infantry über supermen is a myth. Hardened veterans, ok, but not some sort of Death Star some people want us to believe [;)]
In case people are missing this, the Wehrmacht had grown way too fast (the Versailles Treaty restrictions). As a result, this army was NOT that efficient (inevitable structural problems). The thing is most people only see the rutilant façade: the mighty panzers. The infantry marched behind with the horses...
And sorry if I am pissing in someone's pocket [:D]